I've noticed that when I make songs in common time, the last note always sounds best when given 3 beats rather than four... Is there a reason for this? Also, in 3/4 time I have noticed that it often sounds best when I give the ending note 4 beats (dotted half note tied to a quarter in the next measure).

Well for 4/4 time, the beats go like this: strong weak medium weak

So if you end on the third one, it's the medium beat, and it sounds better than ending on something weak.

Don't know about the 3/4 time one . . .

It's essentially the same as 4/4 except in 3/4 the beats go strong weak weak. That's how the basic waltz effect is achieved.

Ah, it makes sense now. Never thought of it that way. :P Isn't it funny how the human mind just expects things in music subconsciously? :P

Originally posted by Elite666@Jul 5 2004, 01:56 AM
It's essentially the same as 4/4 except in 3/4 the beats go strong weak weak. That's how the basic waltz effect is achieved.
Wahh, I should have thought of that, hehe. I think I confused myself by trying to consider how many bars there were in that phrase . . . never mind!

Yep, Strong Weak Weak for 3/4..

If you're doing 5/4, I'm guessing it's either Strong Weak Strong Weak Weak or Strong Weak Weak Strong Weak... 2+3 or 3+2, you see.

I think you can deduce for the other time signatures.

So, generally the rule is, your final chord (not necessarily note, since you can do an accented passing tone and weird shieaaat like that) should be on a strong beat.

I feel that the ending note should end on the beat that best suits the mood of the piece. If it's timid, it goes on four; powerful go on one.

But that's opinion and not theory.