This is a really simple/silly/stupid/whatever question...but I'm kind of curious about this, so I'd really appreciate it if someone could answer it. ^ ^

Ok, so I was playing around on my keyboard, and I came up with the two "songs" included in the MUS attached to my post. The first two measures are what my fingers did by instinct. As anyone with ears can tell, the last 2 note chord (Do two notes count as a chord?) is sour, because of the F note on the bottom of it. In the second little grouping of notes, I fixed the final chord, changing the F to an E instead. I'm just really curious as to why the E sounds better than the F? I mean, by the intervals on the keyboard, it would seem F is the way to go, but it sound sour. Would anyone please explain the theory behind this? I know someone on here can; we've got a lot of great musicians here. Thanks a lot guys, I appreciate it!

PS: I'll be posting some composistions in here in a few days to make this thread more....substantial.... ^ ^" Sorry to the mods if it doesn't belong here or whatever; feel free to move it ;)

PPS: I haven't been here in like two years! Hi again everybody! :lol:

The F one is in F major chord, and in your beginning, I presume that the beginning chord would be A minor, so of course it will be sour if an A minor song ends in an F major chord, but on the other hand, E is part of the A minor chord, so it would be logical.

...*slaps head*
That was...so very obvious!
Thank you for pointing that out for me, I can't believe I didn't see that! X3
I'm more out of practice than I thought apparently > <
Ah well, back to playing!

Oh, and making fiends is great btw :3 "....While Charlette makes friends" hehehe